Klonopin taper formula

Hi,

I am trying to figure out the correct formula for my Klonopin taper and could use some help. I'm currently at 0.45mg (after one dry cut - ouch) but for the sake of the discussion, let's assume I'm at an "even" 0.5mg, ready to switch to liquid and hold for a bit.

I have 0.5mg k tablets. I'd like to make a solution that will last ~10 days. So if I understand correctly, this means I need to drop 10 tablets to make a solution.

I've been playing around with the Jack Shaw calculator to get an idea of the DLMT spiel and studied his readme file thoroughly. If I use the calculator, and say that I want to use 10 tablets (=5mg of k), the calculator automatically suggests (and insists) that I create a 50ml solution at a 0.1mg/1ml concentration. If I change the amount of tablets, I then have to match the liquid amount in order to get to that concentration on the calculator. Anyway, 50ml at 0.1mg/1ml matches what I want . I also travel a lot and this amount can fit in a 60ml glass jar, so it's good for TSA purposes.

So far so good.

Question #1: If I need 2ml of (40%, 80 proof) vodka per 1mg of benzo, and I have 5mg of benzo in the solution (ten 0.5mg tabs), that means I need 10ml of vodka for the K to dissolve. In order to get to 0.1mg/1ml concentration, I would need to add 40ml of water. So, 5mg/50ml equals 0.1/1ml. Am I doing this right? 

Question #2: Jack Shaw then goes on to recommend a 0.01mg/ml concentration for powerful benzos, and uses Klonopin as an example. He did say that at higher doses it makes less of a difference, but then is important for accuracy at lower doses. However, I've seen 0.1mg/1ml recommended across Benzo Buddies, including Klonopin.

Which one is it then? Should I switch to 0.001mg/1ml when I reach a lower dose for better accuracy? If so, what would this dose be? 

Question #3: I've been thinking of combining tablets to reduce the 'shock' of changing to liquid. I've read the recently-bumped thread by Jack on this topic, where people reported anywhere from no sxs to full-on cold turkey sxs from switching. My 0.5mg tablets have a score mark, so I can split them more or less evenly (and then put on a scale to double check). However, in the calculator, it is recommended to start with 3/4 tablets+liquid, then move to 1/2+liquid, then 1/4+liquid, then all liquid.

Since it will be very hard for me to cut 3/4 tablets accurately, would 1/2 tablet+liquid do anything to soften the change (riding down all the way to 0.25mg then all liquid)? Or should I just switch to 100% liquid immediately (and hold for a bit, of course)? 

(note: if 1/2 tablet + liquid is OK, I will do the math and come back here with my chart for verification. I try to do this veryyy responsibly)

Many thanks,

nr1984