Hi everyone,
I have tapered from 3mg to 2.5mg lorazepam sublingual 1 year ago, and held my taper up until now (10 months), which is causing lots of issues (possible interdose and tolerance withdrawal, very intense symptoms, unable to get out of bed and function). I'm in a really awful place and I just want to get back on track. I have questions about how to proceed and get on a good plan moving forward.
I'm at the place where I recognize that my sublinguals are really not sustainable for a taper: due to how small they are, and they crumble so easily.
I've been trying to weigh out my options:
(1) Switching to the oral tabs and beginning a dry cut taper down. I got a supply of oral 0.5mg tabs yesterday and they are not much bigger than the sublinguals! I was told that it's only the 1mg tabs that are rectangular-oblong, and I'm not sure those would be ideal for my situation anyway. I'm not sure if it is ideal to work with the tabs overall, and I've seen some comments being concerned with how much drug is actually in the pills - can someone explain what they mean by this?
(2)I spoke to a compounding pharmacy, and they can take the oral tablets (same manufacturer as the oral, not sublingual) and put them in suspension. The pharm says it's 0.1mg per 1ml, and they dispense the liquid every 2 weeks to maintain freshness. I asked what is in the liquid, and I was given. runnaround, just told that it's a suspension (not helpful). He was also not able to tell me about how the liquid might different from the pill, as he said that I should detect the drug the same.
I am nervous about switching to either of these new formulas, but moreso the liquid. I'm nervous that I will have issues with the tablet dosing, scaling and shaving them. I would say I am very anxious about adjusting to liquid, if it will worsen my symptoms or not work for me. But at the same time, I want to get on a method that is going to allow me the precision and ease I need to continue tapering! I've read that the liquid pharmacokinetics are different to solid dosage, and. it is suggested to increase the dose slightly - can someone please explain this to me?
My current regimen is as such:
0.5mg morning, 0.5mg afternoon, 1.5mg bedtime (sublingual tabs)
Based on how the pharmacist said, I'd be taking 5ml morning and afternoon, and 15ml bedtime (if I go with the liquid), but not accounting for any possible differences...it is a lot of liquid to dispense.
Since the concentration is 0.1mg per 1ml, I am wondering how I can achieve super small decreases, such as 3% (I've had so many symptoms, I want it to be undetectable at first!) - would this be related to the types of syringes I can find and just be as precise as I can?
Slightly unrelated to titration...but since I rapidly tapered and held my dose for so long causing lots of intense withdrawals, I wonder if it might be best to updose back to my original dose, and then decide my method, and start coming down again correctly, with the small increments I wish I'd have known in the beginning? I know it's not favourable, but I've had such a rough time after holding the lowered dose for 10 months, I just wonder if it's going to cause more destabilization... -if someone could please weight in on this?
I would appreciate any insights or information on this topic. Thank you so much!